Actually, there are some rare cases where wages can be garnished in Texas. I wrote about this on another site.
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I always thought the simple answer to that question was no, based on the following Texas statute:
§ 63.004. CURRENT WAGES EXEMPT. Except as otherwise provided by state or federal law, current wages for personal service are not subject to garnishment. The garnishee shall be discharged from the garnishment as to any debt to the defendant for current wages.
http://www.capitol.state.tx.us/statutes/docs/CP/content/htm/cp.003.00.000063.00.htm#63.001.00
But, while trying to help someone with a problem I came across information that would allow for wage garnishment under certain conditions.
Hypothetical: Consumer defaults on debt and has a judgment against them in one state, then later moves to Texas. The consumer now works for a company with headquarters in a third state. The creditor/collector files paperwork with the employer to have the consumers wages garnished.
There are several cases that address this issue.
“Following a line of cases, the Texas Appellate Court found that Texas could not deny full faith and credit to another state’s Judgment merely on the grounds that enforcement of it might offend public policy in Texas. To support this, the Court cited the LeFevre case.â€
http://www.ilcba.org/newsletters/MAY2001ICBA_Newsletter.pdf See the article titled A Texas Garnishment
See also, e.g., Bard v. Charles R. Myers Ins. Agency, Inc., 839 S.W.2d 791, 794 (Tex. 1992); Bergman v. Bergman, 888 S.W.2d 580, 583 (Tex. Ct. App. 1994); Knighton v. IBM Corp., 856 S.W.2d 206 (Tex. Ct. App. 1993); Texaco, Inc. v. LeFevre, 510 S.W.2d 173, 176 (Tex. Civ. App. 1980).
This would be a rare situation, but one that should be prepared for if necessary.
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Another consideration is if they got a default judgment in another state.
I would argue that you were not properly served (if that was the case), and you were unable to defend yourself because of a distant forum.
There are cases that argue both for and against Texas upholding a default judgment from another state. Read the text below carefully. You may be able to use the cases that do not allow for a default judgment to be valid in Texas. The lawyer may find the cases that support the other position, but it is worth a shot.
Once the plaintiff introduces a properly authenticated copy of the sister-state judgment, he creates a prima facie case of the validity of the judgment, and the burden shifts to the defendant to disprove its validity.
Mitchim v. Mitchim, 518 S.W.2d 362, 364 (Tex. 1975); Knighton v. International Business Machines Corp., 856 S.W.2d 206, 209 (Tex. App.—Houston [1st Dist.] 1993, writ denied).
There is a split in the courts of appeals about whether this presumption applies to a default judgment taken in the sister state. Cases holding that the presumption exists include Cash Register Sales & Services of Houston, Inc. v. Copelco Capital, Inc., 62 S.W.3d 278, 280 (Tex. App.—Houston [1st Dist.] 2001, no pet.); Minuteman Press International, Inc. v. Sparks, 782 S.W.2d 339, 342 (Tex. App.—Fort Worth 1989, no writ); First National Bank v. Rector, 710 S.W.2d 100, 103 (Tex. App.—Austin 1986, writ ref’d n.r.e.); Hart v. Calkins Manufacturing, Inc., 623 S.W.2d 451, 452 (Tex. App.—Texarkana 1981, no writ).
Cases holding that a default judgment is not entitled to the presumption of validity include Jackson v. Randall, 544 S.W.2d 439, 441 (Tex. Civ. App.—Texarkana 1976, no writ); Country Clubs, Inc. v. Ward, 461 S.W.2d 651, 652 (Tex. Civ. App.—Dallas 1970, writ ref’d n.r.e.).